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Disproving: If $(\Gamma\vdash(\phi\,\lor\psi))$, either $(\Gamma\vdash\phi)$ or $(\Gamma\vdash\psi)$ is true

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In Chiswell's Mathematical Logic, there is the following problem is posed using the language of propositions (LP):

In some systems of logic (mostly constructive systems where 'true' is taken to mean 'provable') there is a rule

if $(\Gamma\vdash(\phi\,\lor\psi))$ is a correct sequent then at least one of $(\Gamma\vdash\phi)$ and $(\Gamma\vdash\psi)$ is also correct.

By giving a counterexample to a particular instance, show that this is unacceptable as a rule for LP. [Start by giving counterexamples for both the sequents $(\vdash p_0)$ and $(\vdash(\neg p_0))$.]

In my first post on this question, it was answered that one can let $\Gamma = \{p_0\,\lor\,(\neg p_0)\}$. From there, one can deduce neither $(\Gamma\vdash p_0)$ nor $(\Gamma\vdash (\neg p_0))$.

But this does not proceed by the counterexample route that the author suggests. Namely, he seems to imply that we should (1) take an interpretation of propositional variables $p_0,\,p_1,\,\ldots$ (setting each one equal to T or F), and (2) write $\phi$ and $\psi$ as functions of these propositional variables, and (3) pick sentences for $\Gamma$ which are all T, all with the conditions that (A) $(\phi\,\lor\psi)$ is evaluated as T, yet (B) both $\phi$ and $\psi$ are evaluated as F.

This, of course, seems impossible. What, then, am I missing? It seems that taking a concrete interpretation of the propositional symbols makes the constructivist's rule irrefutable. (Note: this is supposed to be a very simple problem set, and I am an elementary logician).


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